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Federal Aviation Administration Private Pilot Written Test

DMB PILOT SCHOOL Special Edition

Airplane & Helicopter 100 Questions

The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are

A- lift, weight, thrust, and drag.

B- lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.

C- lift, gravity, power, and friction.

VNO is defined as the

A- normal operating range.

B- never-exceed speed.

C- maximum structural cruising speed.

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude

in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

A- VY.

B- VA.

C- VX.

What should be the first action after starting an

aircraft engine?

A- Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications

on the engine gauges.

B- Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in

the OFF position to check for proper grounding.

C- Test each brake and the parking brake.

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine

that is overheating?

A- Enrich the fuel mixture.

B- Increase the RPM.

C- Reduce the airspeed.

What is an advantage of a constant-speed

propeller?

A- Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.

B- permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient

performance.

C- Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates

vibrations.

What are the standard temperature and pressure

values for sea level?

A- 15℃ and 29.92″Hg.

B- 59℃ and 1013.2 millibars.

C- 59゜F and 29.92 millibars.

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head

temperature gauges have exceeded their normal

operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

A- the mixture set too rich.

B- higher-than-normal oil pressure.

C- too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an

engine that is overheating during a climb?

A- Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

B- Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.

C- Increase climb speed and increase RPM.

Which instrument will become inoperative if the

pitot tube becomes clogged?

A- Altimeter.

B- Vertical speed.

C- Airspeed.

(Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the

normal flap operating range?

A- The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of

the green arc.

B- The green arc.

C- The white arc.

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by

P-factor is the result of the

A- clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the

airplane counter-clockwise.

B- propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust

than the ascending blade on the left.

C- gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting

90°in advance of the point the force was applied.

While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air

mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a

descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting

the mixture?

A- The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

B- There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is

needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel

will absorb heat and cool the engine.

C- The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder

head temperatures and may cause detonation.

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft

equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by

applying carburetor heat and noting

A- an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease

in RPM.

B- a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM

indication.

C- a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase

in RPM.

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft

engine when

A- the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the

wiring is defective.

B- hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/

air mixture in advance of normal ignition.

C- the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes

instead of burning normally.

If anti-torque failure occurred during the landing

touchdown, what could be done to help straighten out a

left yaw prior to touchdown?

A- A flare to zero airspeed and a vertical descent to

touchdown should be made.

B- Apply available throttle to help swing the nose to the

right just prior to touchdown.

C- A normal running landing should be made.

Which flight technique is recommended for use

during hot weather?

A- Use minimum allowable RPM and maximum

allowable manifold pressure during all phases of flight.

B- During hovering flight, maintain minimum engine RPM

during left pedal turns, and maximum engine RPM

during right pedal turns.

C- During takeoff, accelerate slowly into forward flight.

During forward cruising flight at constant airspeed

and altitude, the individual rotor blades, when compared

to each other, are operating

A- with increased lift on the retreating blade.

B- with a decreasing angle of attack on the advancing

blade.

C- at unequal airspeed, unequal angles of attack, and

equal lift moment.

Ground resonance is most likely to develop when

A- on the ground and harmonic vibrations develop

between the main and tail rotors.

B- a series of shocks causes the rotor system to

become unbalanced.

C- there is a combination of a decrease in the angle of

attack on the advancing blade and an increase in the

angle of attack on the retreating blade.

The principal reason the shaded area of a Height

vs. Velocity Chart should be avoided is

A- turbulence near the surface can dephase the blade

dampers.

B- rotor RPM may decay before ground contact is made

if an engine failure should occur.

C- insufficient airspeed would be available to ensure a

safe landing in case of an engine failure.

If the pilot were to make a near-vertical power

approach into a confined area with the airspeed near

zero, what hazardous condition may develop?

A- Ground resonance when ground contact is made.

B- A settling-with-power condition.

C- Blade stall vibration could develop.

Which is a precaution to be observed during an

autorotative descent?

A- Normally, the airspeed is controlled with the

collective pitch.

B- Normally, only the cyclic control is used to make

turns.

C- Do not allow the rate of descent to get too low at

zero airspeed.

If the pitot tube and outside static vents become

clogged, which instruments would be affected?

A- The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip

indicator.

B- The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed

indicator.

C- The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip

indicator.

(Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 3 indicates

A- 9,500 feet.

B- 10,950 feet.

C- 15,940 feet.

Altimeter setting is the value to which the

barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so

the altimeter indicates

A- calibrated altitude at field elevation.

B- absolute altitude at field elevation.

C- true altitude at field elevation.

How do variations in temperature affect the

altimeter?

A- Pressure levels are raised on warm days and

the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

B- Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels

and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.

C- Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and

the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

If a flight made from an area of high pressure

into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter

setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

A- lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

B- higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

C- the actual altitude above sea level.

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused

by the

A- presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of

the compass.

B- difference in the location between true north and

magnetic north.

C- magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines

of magnetic force.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass

will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if

A- an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.

B- an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

C- a left turn is entered from a north heading.

VSO is defined as the

A- stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the

landing configuration.

B- stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a

specified configuration.

C- stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not

color coded on airspeed indicators?

A- Never-exceed speed.

B- Maximum structural cruising speed.

C- Maneuvering speed.

What document(s) must be in your personal

possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while

operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

A- certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout

in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.

B- A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing

accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot

logbook showing recency of experience.

C- An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate

current medical certificate if required.

In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

A- not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating

expenses of a flight with passengers provided the

expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures,

or rental fees.

B- act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a

passenger for compensation if the flight is in

connection with a business or employment.

C- not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses

of a flight.

With respect to the certification of airmen,

which is a class of aircraft?

A- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

B- Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land

and sea.

C- lighter - than - air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

The definition of nighttime is

A- sunset to sunrise.

B- 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

C- the time between the end of evening civil twilight

and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have

A- a biennial flight review.

B- an annual flight review.

C- a semiannual flight review.

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a

36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise

the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical

certificate will be valid until midnight on

A- August 10, 2 years later.

B- August 31, 3 years later.

C- August 31, 2years later.

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away

from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically

require the pilot in command to

A- review traffic control light signal procedures.

B- check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency

locator transmitter (ELT).

C- determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the

aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

To determine the expiration date of the last

annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the

A- Airworthiness Certificate.

B- Registration Certificate.

C- aircraft maintenance records.

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a

civil aircraft with

A- .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

B- .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

C- .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

What should an owner or operator know about

Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?

A- For Informational purposes only.

B- They are mandatory.

C- They are voluntary.

What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic

flight?

A- 1,000 feet AGL.

B- 1,500 feet AGL.

C- 2,000 feet AGL.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other

aircraft listed?

A- Gyroplane.

B- Airship.

C- Aircraft towing other aircraft.

What aircraft inspections are required for rental

aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

A- Annual and 100-hour inspections.

B- Biannual and 100-hour inspections.

C- Annual and 50-hour inspections.

What regulation allows a private pilot to

perform preventive maintenance?

A- 14 CFR Part 91.403.

B- 14 CFR Part 43.7.

C- 14 CFR Part 61.113.

FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at

cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by

A- distribution from the nearest FAA district office.

B- ordering those desired from the Government Printing

　　Office.

C- subscribing to the Federal Register.

Completion of an annual inspection and the

return of the aircraft to service should always be

indicated by

A- the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate.

B- an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance

records.

C- an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel

that lists the annual inspection completion date.

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the

time the NTSB takes custody?

A- Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law

enforcement officer.

B- Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further

damage.

C- No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.

(Refer to Figure 9, area A.) How should the flight

controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped

airplane into a left quartering headwind?

A- Left aileron up, elevator neutral.

B- Left aileron down, elevator neutral.

C- Left aileron up, elevator down.

The most effective method of scanning for other

aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is

to use

A- regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and

　　12-o'clock position.

B- a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to

　　search each 30-degree sector.

C- peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and

　　utilizing offcenter viewing.

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for

traffic to the right and left during straight-and level flight?

A- Systematically focus on different segments of the

　　sky for short intervals.

B- Concentrate on relative movement detected in the

　　peripheral vision area.

C- Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to

left.

During a night flight, you observe steady red and

green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the

general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A- The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

B- The other aircraft is flying away from you.

C- The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

(Refer to Figure 21.) What is your approximate

position on low altitude airway Victor 1, southwest of

Norfolk (area 1), if the VOR receiver indicates you are on

the 340°radial of Elizabeth City VOR (area 3)?

A- 15 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.

B- 18 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.

C- 23 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.

What procedure is recommended when climbing

or descending VFR on an airway?

A- Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous

visual scanning of the airspace.

B- Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.

C- Fly away from the centerline of the airway before

changing altitude.

When the course deviation indicator (CDI)

needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using

a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector

(OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read

A- 180°FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT.

B- 0°TO or 180°FROM, regardless of the pilot's

position from the VOT.

C- 0°FROM or 180°TO, regardless of the pilot's

position from the VOT.

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land

on a runway served by a visual approach slope

indicator (VASI) shall

A- maintain a 3°glide to the runway.

B- maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

C- stay high until the runway can be reached in a

power-off landing.

Convective circulation patterns associated

with sea breezes are caused by

A- warm, dense air moving inland from over the

water.

B- water absorbing and radiating heat faster than

the land.

C- cool, dense air moving inland from over the

water.

A temperature inversion would most likely

result in which weather condition?

A- Clouds with extensive vertical development

above an inversion aloft.

B- Good visibility in the lower levels of the

atmosphere and poor visibility above an

inversion aloft.

C- An increase in temperature as altitude is

increased.

Where does wind shear occur?

A- Only at higher altitudes.

B- Only at lower altitudes.

C- At all altitudes, in all directions.

What measurement can be used to determine

the stability of the atmosphere?

A- Atmospheric pressure.

B- Actual lapse rate.

C- Surface temperature.

The suffix "nimbus," used in naming clouds, means

A- a cloud with extensive vertical development.

B- a rain cloud.

C- a middle cloud containing ice pellets.

What conditions are necessary for the formation

of thunderstorms?

A- High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.

B- High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.

C- Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity

during the

A- mature stage.

B- downdraft stage.

C- cumulus stage.

If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what

type clouds can be expected?

A- Stratus clouds with little vertical development.

B- Stratus clouds with considerable associated

　　turbulence.

C- Clouds with considerable vertical development

　　and associated turbulence.

What types of fog depend upon wind in order

to exist?

A- Radiation fog and ice fog.

B- Steam fog and ground fog.

C- Advection fog and upslope fog.

How will frost on the wings of an airplane

affect takeoff performance?

A- Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the

　　wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.

B- Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing

　　its lifting capability.

C- Frost will cause the airplane to become airborne

　　with a higher angle of attack, decreasing the stall

　　 speed.

(Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the

clear sky becomes

A- overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period

between 2200Z and 2400Z.

B- overcast at 200 feet with a 40% probability of

becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast

period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

C- overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming

overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period

between 2200Z and 2400Z.

The section of the Area Forecast entitled

"VFR CLDS/WX" contains a general description of

A- cloudiness and weather significant to flight

operations broken down by states or other

geographical areas.

B- forecast sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, and

obstructions to vision along specific routes.

C- clouds and weather which cover an area greater

than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR

flight operations.

Rader weather reports are of special interest

to pilots because they indicate

A- location of precipitation along with type,

intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.

B- location of precipitation along with type,

intensity, and trend.

C- large areas of low ceilings and fog.

(Refer to Figure 17.) Determine the wind and

temperature aloft forecast for MKC at 6,000 feet.

A- 200°true at 6 knots, temperature +3℃.

B- 050°true at 7 knots, temperature missing.

C- 200°magnetic at 6 knots, temperature +3℃.

What information is provided by the Radar Summary

Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?

A- Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.

B- Ceilings and precipitation between reporting stations.

C- Types of clouds between reporting stations.

What service should a pilot normally expect from

an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station?

A- Actual weather information and thunderstorm

activity along the route.

B- Preferential routing and radar vectoring to

circumnavigate severe weather.

C- Severe weather information, changes to flight

plans, and receipt of routine position reports.

What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE

SIGMET?

A- Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4

inch or greater in diameter.

B- Severe icing, severe turbulence, or widespread

dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.

C- Surface winds greater than 40 knots or thunderstorms

equal to or greater than video integrator processor

(VIP) level 4.

To obtain a continuous transcribed weather

briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a

cross-country flight, a pilot should monitor a

A- Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB

or a VOR facility.

B- VHF radio receiver tuned to an Automatic Terminal

Information Service (ATIS) frequency.

C- regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR

frequency.

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot

request to supplement mass disseminated data?

A- An outlook briefing.

B- A supplemental briefing.

C- An abbreviated briefing.

(Refer to Figure 35.) What is the maximum

amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the

airplane for the CG to remain within the moment

envelope?

WEIGHT (LB)

MOM/1000

Empty weight

1350

51.5

Pilot and front passenger

250

―

Rear passengers

400

―

Baggage

―

Fuel, 30 gal

―

Oil, 8 qt

―

-0.2

A- 105 pounds.

B- 110 pounds.

C- 120 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the total distance

required to land.

OAT

32゜F

Pressure altitude

8,000 ft

Weight

2,600 lb

Headwind component

20 kts

Obstacle

50 ft

A- 850 feet.

B- 1,400 feet.

C- 1,750 feet.

Which combination of atmospheric conditions

will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?

A- Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low

density altitude.

B- High temperature, low relative humidity, and low

density altitude.

C- High temperature, high relative humidity, and high

density altitude.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What action should be taken

for lateral balance if the helicopter is loaded as follows?

Gross weight　

1,800　lb

Pilot

100 lb, 13.5 in. left of “0”MOM arm

Copilot　

200 lb, 13.5 in. right of “0”MOM arm

A- Add 50 pounds of weight to the pilot's side.

B- Decrease the gross weight 50 pounds.

C- No action is required.

(Refer to Figure 44.) Determine if the helicopter

weight and balance is within limits.

WEIGHT (LB)　

ARM (IN)

MOM (100)

Empty weight 　　　　　

1495.0

101.4

1,515.93

Oil, 8 qt 　　　　

―

100.5

―

Fuel, 40 gal 　　　

―

96.0

―

Pilot and copilot 　　

300.0

64.0

―

A- CG 95.2 inches, within limits.

B- CG 95.3 inches, weight and CG out of limits.

C- CG 95.4 inches, within limits.

If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given

altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is

A- equal to pressure altitude.

B- lower than pressure altitude.

C- higher than pressure altitude.

What effect dose high density altitude, as

compared to low density altitude, have on propeller

efficiency and why?

A- Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the

propeller blades.

B- Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts

less force at high density altitude than at low

density altitudes.

C- Efficiency is reduced due to the increased force of

the propeller in the thinner air.

(Refer to Figure 21.) En route to

First Flight Airport (area 5), your flight passes over

Hampton Roads Airport (area 2) at 1456 and then

over Chesapeake Municipal at 1501. At what time

should your flight arrive at First Flight?

A- 1516.

B- 1521.

C- 1526.

(Refer to Figure 22.) What is the estimated

time en route from Mercer County Regional Airport

(area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind

is from 330°at 25 knots and the true airspeed is

100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and

climb-out.

A- 44 minutes.

B- 48 minutes.

C- 52 minutes.

Figure 22

How should contact be established with an

EnRoute Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and

what service would be expected?

A- Call EFAS on 122.2 for routine weather, current

reports on hazardous weather, and altimeter settings.

B- Call flight assistance on 122.5 for advisory service

pertaining to severe weather.

C- Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding

actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed

route.

While on final approach for landing, an alternating

green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received

from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot

should

A- discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and

approach again, and land.

B- exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing

the airport is unsafe for landing.

C- abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and

expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous

attitude, such as "Antiauthority"?

A- Rules do not apply in this situation.

B- I know what I am doing.

C- Follow the rules.

What often leads to spatial disorientation or

collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual

Flight Rules (VFR)?

A- Continual flight into instrument conditions.

B- Getting behind the aircraft.

C- Duck-under syndrome.

The danger of spatial disorientation

during flight in poor visual conditions may be

reduced by

A- shifting the eyes quickly between the

exterior visual field and the instruments

panel.

B- having faith in the instruments rather than

taking a chance on the sensory organs.

C- leaning the body in the opposite direction

of the motion of the aircraft.

A state of temporary confusion resulting

from misleading information being sent to the

brain by various sensory organs is defined as

A- spatial disorientation.

B- hyperventilation.

C- hypoxia.

If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation

during flight in a restricted visibility condition,

the best way to overcome the effect is to

A- rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.

B- concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll

sensations.

C- consciously slow the breathing rate until

symptoms clear and then resume normal

breathing rate.

Large accumulations of carbon monoxide

in the human body result in

A- tightness across the forehead.

B- loss of muscular power.

C- an increased sense of well-being.

Rapid or extra deep breathing while

using oxygen can cause a condition known

A- hyperventilation

B- aerosinusitis

C- aerotitis

A pilot should be able to overcome

the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of

hyperventilation by

A- closely monitoring the flight instruments

to control the airplane.

B- slowing the breathing rate, breathing into

a bag, or talking aloud.

C- increasing the breathing rate in order to

increase lung ventilation.

The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/

Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that

A- this airport is designated as an airport of entry.

B- the Flight Service Station has equipment with which

to determine your direction from the station.

C- this airport has a direct-line phone to the Flight

Service Station.

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program

is best described as

A- traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR

aircraft.

B- mandatory radar service provided by the Automated

Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program.

C- wind-shear warning at participating airports.

Stage III Service in the terminal radar program

provides

A- IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles

lateral) between all aircraft.

B- warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe

proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.

C- sequencing and separation for participating VFR

aircraft.

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles

of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to

10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

A- an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver.

B- instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.

C- an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code

capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.

When must batteries in an emergency locator

transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?

A- After any inadvertent activation of the ELT.

B- When the ELT has been in use for more than 1cumulative hour.

C- When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's

communication radio receiver.

100

Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the

emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?

A- Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing.

B- Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal.

C- Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.

以上、１００問